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Larry

04/22/14 3:07 PM

#63216 RE: Jagger350 #63214

Yes, it has been a while...but I believe that when it says "with prejudice" that it cannot be brought up again.
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TheSkunk

04/22/14 3:24 PM

#63226 RE: Jagger350 #63214

So IF there had been a deal between the two parties outside of court it would have had to appear in that final document? Right?

Do you know this for certain? I need a little more than opinion so if you have additional commentary to explain it would be appreciated. If the answer to my original question is yes then there's obviously no need to further commentary.

Thanks!