Can you elaborate on this? I thought the Barr deal was ok and the Bentley deal was too small to matter much (the acquired assets were mainly in Spain, IIRC).
Ratiopharm, more than any other deal, changed the geographic composition of Teva’s assets, so I’d especially like to hear why you consider it a failure.
“The efficient-market hypothesis may be
the foremost piece of B.S. ever promulgated
in any area of human knowledge!”