Is this level of efficacy seen (20.4% reduction in GA) clinically meaningful?
I think it is, but others might disagree. A related question is whether it is meaningful from a regulatory standpoint, which is hard to answer because the endpoints required for approval in dry AMD are not as well established as in wet AMD.
“The efficient-market hypothesis may be the foremost piece of B.S. ever promulgated in any area of human knowledge!”