?Question? Should the government be allowed to "sell" the stock that they issued to themselves after the companies are fully paid up? The Gov't's holding can be classified as "collateral" rather than ownership. They never paid the current stockholders for the so called consevatorship of 79.8%. I would call this transaction an illegal confiscation
There are basic contract rules here. Unless this case will break precedent, I don't see the government's case for ownership.
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