CAN SOMEONE ANSWER MY QUESTION? ANY EXPERTS OUT THERE?
Question for anyone that can chime in. This is a scenario based as I believe it would be the easiest to comprehend. If I sold my current position artificially (brokerage firm without receipt of the actual shares) @ .0160, what would happen if the price dropped to .008 when the shares are actually delivered and unlocked? Would the brokerage firm cover the difference in PPS or will they come after me?
I currently see my shares (with F/S) in my brokerage account. When I called my brokerage firm, I was told that I can sell the shares with trust that the shares will later be delivered. I use trust here because historically, the firm had no issues with share delivery upon a F/S.
Would the brokerage firm actually try to sell these shares at .0160 once they receive the real shares ( which they artificially sold for me); or will they sell at .008 and come back to for the difference? I am new and little confused on the mechanism at hand.
Market Data 
Markets 
AI
