The law calls property a bundle of rights, meaning that different rights come packaged together (right to sell, right to use, etc.). You seem to be talking about the right to sell, and only that right. Even if the shares were wholly nontransferable at this point, that is a different question from whether the underlying share continues to exist for other purposes (e.g., voting on issues where a vote is required, distribution if the corporation is sold).
Now, to answer your question, I just checked with one of my brokers (Schwab), who confirmed that account holders can move shares or money to another account holder's account. Thus, if you held 100,000 shares in an account with this broker, you and I could agree that we would direct the broker to transfer $1,000 from my account to yours and 100,000 shares of Superior from your account to mine. That would be me buying 100,000 shares at $0.01. I did not check on the fees that the broker would charge, and the two transactions would be totally untethered as far as the broker is concerned. As such, we would each need a way to ensure that the other carried through on his obligation (i.e., to ensure that I directed the transfer of $1,000 if you directed the transfer of 100,000 shares).
like i said, just one person show how those shares can be converted to cash and then we can talk. as of now, you got nuthin'.
I am an amateur at this, and it would be unwise to rely on my opinions without your own independent confirmation in consultation with an investment professional.