We know Pfs is correlated with OS and can be considered as a surrogate endpoint.
How do we know PFS is correlated with OS? I still don't understand where you're coming from here.
I don't buy it until cldx shows there is no bias in the process of subset ting.
Today's PR says the following: "Nearly all patients had Stage IV, or metastatic, disease. Patients on the CDX-011 arm received a median of six prior courses of therapy and patients on the IC arm received a median of five prior courses of therapy." That doesn't read to me as a bias in favor of the 011 arm.