Thats not the answer to my question. Again, why did he let shareholder vote if the reverse split is part of the loans? He would risk to lose the loans, so probably he made only the reverse split to get better financing deals with Asher&Co!
Maybe company need better financing agreements and they could not wait longer, pps was 0.0050, higher pps, low market cap, lower share structure ---> better financing deals with Asher!
But i can answer your question, he cant make a higher reverse split, because then there would be no liquidity, no market, that was the highest possible reverse split. And who would buy shares if a company makes a 1 for 500 reverse split? They would be done! There would be no chance for a market. Debt holders are not blind. They get shares and they want to sell them.
Or should the bid .01 and the ask $15 with a higher reverse split? It´s important to have a market, so he made the highest possible reverse split. But please answer my question above. That was your theory and i would like to hear your answer. It seems for me the reverse split had absolutely nothing to do with the loans and was important for new financing agreements. If pps is .0050 its not possible to get good deals with Asher and other debt holders.