I think the case is quite clear, Sharon, to the extent that he had control, gave a direct order to avoid bloodshed, here is what one of the documents "against" Sharon cites:
http://www.guardian.co.uk/israel/Story/0,2763,608171,00.html "...among them Sharon's own complaint to Bashir Gemayel, minuted 10 weeks before the massacre, that "it is incumbent that we prevent several ugly things which have occurred - murders, rapes and stealing by some of your men". "
I would say this is a direct order, to the extent that indeed Sharon had "command control" (as claimed by the Belgian court), to prevent any massacre.
This is the only factual stuff in that article, the rest are innuendo, can't it be clearer It is incumbent to prevent ugly things (which have occurred in the past between Phalangists and Palestinians) like murders and rapes".
Sharon indirect culpability , as determined by Israel's supreme court is that he was supposed to know that his "orders" would be disobeyed.