Therefore what's the reason for triple negative tumors to appear to respond better to a GPNMB adc? Do they naturally express more GPNMB than the HER2 or ER/PR positive tumors?
I have a similar question. When I overlay the PFS plots on slide 13 of the presentation, the control arm of the three subgroups look pretty close. However for the CDX-011 arm, while the triple negative and high expressor curves overlap, the TN-high shows better PFS. So it appears triple negative status differentiates it amongst even the high expressors. Per the article below TN tends to have greater percentage of high expressors and also expression in tumor epithelium (vs stroma) as compared to other sub types. If this is a possible explanation for TN high being the best responders, it would seem to further narrow the market size. That said, the data do look promising.