I've wondered for a while why A*'s (in)ability to pay for even 1x damages wasn't a part of the MNTA/NVS argument for irreparable harm.
I suspect it is because of the perception that Watson (shall I call them joint tortfeasor) could respond in damages. The Texaco situation supports the argument that might not be true.
It is astonishing what foolish things one can temporarily believe if one thinks too long alone ... where it is often impossible to bring one's ideas to a conclusive test either formal or experimental. J.M. Keynes