IF Roth owns 100k pref series A shares THEN voting shares = (100k)*(1.1)(400M/1M) = 44M voting shares
IF Roth owns 1M pref series A shares THEN voting shares = (1M)*(1.1)(400M/1M) = 440M voting shares
Why would Roth need to execute some reverse split to control the company if he already does. You claim that Roth has 1M pref series A shares instead of 100k shares, fine, but that would mean that he already has control of the company so why do an R/S????
IMO the exact number of Roth pref series A shares is either 100k or 1M (all of the issued and outstanding series A), no one here is talking about 1k series A shares. Also the by-laws are loosely worded so up for interpretation. I think all shareholders should demand to vote on some random issue just to see it happen and how it goes through. 'JMHO'
Hopefully I have not lost you in a fog of misunderstanding with this dissertation. :P
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