The existence of a proprietary patented process speaks to the “willfulness” (i.e. the lack thereof) of NVS/MNTA’s infringement in the event the Judge finds that NVS/MNTA’s generic Copaxone does infringe.
I just don't see this. So if I have a patented process for making a drug with a valid COM patent, I'm somehow protected from willfully infringing that COM patent?