I’m waiting for someone to try to explain the factoid (mentioned in #msg-64637084) that drugs developed in-house by Big Pharma are 20% more likely to obtain regulatory approval than those that are in-licensed.
Probably depends on the definitions, specifically at what point do they start including "drugs that originate inside Big Pharma companies" in the denominator for big-pharma approval rates? Clearly they can't be including the myriad of pre-clinical compounds originating in big-pharma that never make phase I.