One can't read the first few verses of I Timothy 4 and get the intended meaning of the writer. The Old Testament is a teacher and was complete on the crucifiction of Christ (Galatians 3:23-25). However, the Bible does not contradict itself and no where, zilch in the New Testament can one find any sanctioned mention of anything but men and women marrying. So the NT is consistent with the OT on that teaching.
The writing of letters to Timothy from Paul were letters of instruction as Paul is near to death at the hand of the Romans on fake charges, nevertheless he will be killed by Nero's regime.
The previous usuage of the first few verses of 1 Timtohy 4: to me indicate the exact same point of using an exerpt or selected phrase without knowing the full intended meaning of the thought, chapter or book for that matter.
Btw as far as it is in most cases the mention of Godly men/women and politics shouldn't be used in the same text in my view. g Sorry to clutter the board with this post but the error in using scripture to prove a false point I couldn't ignore.