3/23/2010 2:03:27 PM A shareholder representing over 50,000,000 common shares of the company has tendered an offer for the controlling interest in the company at a 25% premium to market valuation on a specific future date. Accordingly, a maximum cap to the offer has been also placed by the shareholder. This statement is intended to inform shareholders of the offer.
#2
The company has identified its candidate for its currently vacant CEO position, and the candidate is currently employed by the company. The company anticipates filling this position on or before January 1, 2011.
#3
The company announced that Glenn Harrs , and J.D. Brown will be stepping down from their current positions on or about January 1, 2011.
Could the "specific future date" cited in #1 be 1/1/11? i.e. Did JD/GH agree to allow the company to be bought out at the end of the year back then? This explanation would explain much: 1)It explains why the guy doesn't become CEO until 1/1/11 (buyout date). 2)It explains why JD and GH would be stepping down then (they're selling out). 3)It would explain the extra Billion shares (the guy bought himself a much larger stake if not controlling interest). 4)It could explain why they won't tell us the new CEO's name. 5)It would explain why we don't know who bought most of the 1B shares. 6)It would explain why GH started a new business in March. 7)It could explain reluctance to file form 3s. 8)It could explain the premium that was paid for the PP shares. 9)It could explain why JD/GH aren't being paid (or practically not) 10)It could even potentially explain the cancellation of the etc dividend.
It is not unusual for a new owner to have substantial overlap with current management after an acquisition.
I guess I'm just thinking out loud... but I'd like to hear other opinions on this...