Tornado Alley (PROG)

[F6]

DesertDrifter -- I did reference that the U.S. consitution is "capable of being changed only by amendments adopted in the manner it sets forth" in http://investorshub.advfn.com/boards/read_msg.aspx?message_id=53075090 (ratification by each state is by the state legislature or by a state convention rather than by a popular vote [ http://digital.library.unt.edu/ark:/67531/metacrs415/m1/1/high_res_d/ {choose 'open'; via http://digital.library.unt.edu/ark:/67531/metacrs415/ / http://digital.library.unt.edu/ark:/67531/metacrs415/m1/ }; http://www.archives.gov/federal-register/constitution/ ]) (and I swear I wasn't even going to mention the 3/4 of the states thing, lol [ http://investorshub.advfn.com/boards/read_msg.aspx?message_id=53099328 ]) -- that's not what we were focused on anyway, not directly relevant to the Prop 8 case; if only for the sake of some economy of words, I don't elaborate or reiterate every detail every time

now your ERA question is, of course, at that different constitutional-amendment level -- but no analogue relating to gay rights has thus far been added to the U.S. constitution either -- this whole Prop 8 thing is unfolding under the constitution as it has been absent any such