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Re: Risicare post# 317621

Saturday, 05/08/2010 1:06:03 PM

Saturday, May 08, 2010 1:06:03 PM

Post# of 346953
"I have begun to wonder if Pike purchases were some kind of money laundering."

Your post hit the nail on the head. Consider this possible example:

Say the Mutt brothers move 2,000,000,000 shares from AS to an offshore account. Maybe those shares were at par value $0.0001 which equates to a cost basis of $200,000.

Those 2B shares are incrementally floated into the market at a price of $0.04. That equates to $80,000,000.

Suppose Pike is in cahoots with M&M in the offshore accounts and Pike agrees to be a catalyst for buying.

Pike spends $16 million to buy up those shares at $0.04. Total shares bought equate to 400,000,000. His buying on the open market spurs the gullible into believing success is at hand. They sop up the other 1.6 billion shares.

$80,000,000 minus $16,000,000 is $64,000,000 in profit (not accounting for negligible $200,000 cost basis).

The fund loses money but Pike still gets his share of the offshore $64,000,000.

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