"I have begun to wonder if Pike purchases were some kind of money laundering."
Your post hit the nail on the head. Consider this possible example:
Say the Mutt brothers move 2,000,000,000 shares from AS to an offshore account. Maybe those shares were at par value $0.0001 which equates to a cost basis of $200,000.
Those 2B shares are incrementally floated into the market at a price of $0.04. That equates to $80,000,000.
Suppose Pike is in cahoots with M&M in the offshore accounts and Pike agrees to be a catalyst for buying.
Pike spends $16 million to buy up those shares at $0.04. Total shares bought equate to 400,000,000. His buying on the open market spurs the gullible into believing success is at hand. They sop up the other 1.6 billion shares.
$80,000,000 minus $16,000,000 is $64,000,000 in profit (not accounting for negligible $200,000 cost basis).
The fund loses money but Pike still gets his share of the offshore $64,000,000.