According to the president, at the 5 day mark, 1625 produced the "single deepest viral load reduction that anyone has been able to produce.
From the presentation slides it appears that the lower dose (500 mg)produces better viral reduction than the 600 mg. Does this make sense? Do you also happen to have an idea of how the additional dosing cohorts would be different?
As a comparison, from what I can find, Telapravir monotherapy produced a 5 log reduction but at 14 days of dosing, in a p1 trial.
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