If they offered a low ball for the settlement that would be understandable as a strategy.
However, what I do not understand is that JPM/FDIC did offer "zero". Morever, what puzzles me they get the higher share of the billion dollar tax returns of WMI!!
How could this be possible?!?!?!?
JPM paid $1.9B for WMI and now it is getting back more than that from WMIs tax returns and also FDIC is getting more $s forget about giving anything to WMI.
I just cannot understand how a lawyer could be agree to these terms after all it is said and done through Rule 2004, claims, etc.?!?!?!?
SOmebody please can explain this?
Thanks Climber
PS: I guess after this point the most they will do maybe give all tax returns to WMI and that is it. I do not think they will give even a penny more from their own pocket.