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Re: SIIX post# 44314

Wednesday, 11/04/2009 9:37:46 AM

Wednesday, November 04, 2009 9:37:46 AM

Post# of 375420
neither of you have it right....that is ABSOLUTELY NOT how a conversion is done......and, persisting in this talk as thought it was true is a disservice to the other memebers of the board who are unfamiliar with CD conversions and read your posts and believe what you are saying is true

if what either of you say is true....the CD holder would be getting shares issued from the corp treasury for "zero" dollars......or, they would be buying shares instead of getting paid for them....

think about it.....it doesn't follow logically.....

the conversion is done by short selling the shares.....the basis price reflects the number of initial shares allocated by the agreement to cover the loan and interest.....

extra shares are ONLY issued if the short sale does not yield the differential PPS agreed upon basis price because there is a formula for the allocation of shares to cover based on a percentage of average trade over the last 3 to 5 trading sessions.....

and, when they get more shares....the anti-dilution clause states they are limited to a conversion of 4.99% O/s in any session....

you guys really have to inquire about the methodology concerning CD conversions.....you are doing a disservice to yourself and others here....