ARYX reported statistical significance for the primary endpoint of improvement in the total number of spontaneous bowel movements, but it was at the 2nd highest dosing regimen of 80mg bid (apparently 120 mg bid was not successful). I'm generally leery when there's not a clear dose-dependent response; i.e., why wouldn't 120 mg bid be successful if 80mg bid was? That said, the 80mg bid results were apparently stat sig. What do you make of such a paradox?