TEVA/Amphastar: Wouldn't any anti-trust case infer that monetary damages are due despite no approved generic product? Or, perhaps, that the FDA was complicit by not approving a generic based on the existing patent, thus "constructively" blocking sales?
Seems like a long stretch, or is there precedent?
"Illegitimacy is something we should talk about in terms of not having it."
- Dan Quayle