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BBALLGUY

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BBALLGUY

Re: reapingprophet post# 24272

Thursday, 08/23/2007 11:59:04 AM

Thursday, August 23, 2007 11:59:04 AM

Post# of 49563
If this was a "cash" deal, why wouldn't the amount of the outstanding loan be withheld from the cash payment and used to pay off the loan directly? I cannot imagine the lein holder permiting the sale of the stock and releasing the new owner, who has the assets, from liability on the loan. I can't see that release happening. Just my non-legal opinion.
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