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Re: FannieMan post# 841765

Sunday, 08/31/2025 3:27:12 PM

Sunday, August 31, 2025 3:27:12 PM

Post# of 869771
Several facts are implicit to your question: Why isn't an oversubscribed comin IPO creating more volume in existing shares?
I(nitial) P(ublic) O(ffering). Without pasting dictionary definitions here I will go out on a limb and say "initial" happens once. Further out on a limb: shares currently trading on a stock exchange are resultant of an "Initial Public Offering" held at some point in the past. And then completely bonkers: since the existing shares have had an IPO already, if an IPO will be held in the future, it must be of something other than the currently trading shares.

There is this name "Great American Mortgage Company" associated with the much-buzzed-about "IPO". Seems to me that name could be the security underneath said "IPO" because no such company currently exists. It also would seem that the "Great American Mortgage Company" is not Fannie Mae or Freddie Mac.

Lots of assertions here like no merger without congress, no change to the charter without congress. I am skeptical because many of us have been here and/or other message boards for 16-17 years and longer BECAUSE the government did what it wanted to do. No political check and balance, no co-equal branch of government check and balance, no rule-of-law. Instead, F&F were "rescued by W", disgorged by Paulson, further disgorged by Barry et al, all with great down-field blocking by the judiciary. Maybe the greatest bi-partisan action of all time. Even Max got in on it.

All this adds up to the IPO being a no-op on the current shares. The Current tickers may sell additional shares generated by executing warrants, but that again is not an "IPO".
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