I’m curious if any longs here who happen to have sold out ALL of their COOP share holdings 45 days or longer ago, still got a voting ballot?
Another question? When was the record date to qualify for voting?
Where I’m going with this experiment: I would expect naysayers and newbies to say they didn’t get a ballot. I happened to be in between flipping COOP and was out of holding it when multiple ballots arrived for my multiple accounts prior holdings. This makes me wonder if old legacy interests (those who released) are verifiably still being tracked as if they are current owners (they are) due to the future .058 share reallocation to balance the bankruptcy requirement of ownership being discussed. In other words, why would I still get ballots despite being temporarily out of holding COOP? And that this share allocation requirement is carefully being followed for the upcoming RKT merger. ie I think both current COOP holders and legacy holders portions to come (.058) might all be voting together. It makes sense, otherwise some outside entity could’ve sucked up the majority of shares recently in violation of our bankruptcy guidelines, and could hikack the merger.