Chiming in on the "Investments are or are not liabilities" convo.
.... doesn't it depend on whether the sale value of the asset could wipe out any debt owed on the purchase of said asset? For instance, If I buy a house for $1 million, and I currently still owe $800K on the loan, but the market has dropped so now the house is worth just $750K, that's clearly a liability. But if the market skyrockets and the house is now worth $1.5 million, how is that not an asset?
Net loss or net gain from sale...
Maybe I'm being daft, IDK.
Vodka