I would not wonder, if this is totally bullshit what the cowboy claims. Why shall there be different number with different values when they all have the same origin ?? Do you remember when XC.. etc etc has been used for organizational reasons ? The only thing I could imagine is to have an identifier for released- and non-released shares. This is the only reason that could make sense. Further it might be intransparent when we are somewhere within the chain of different depositories / organisations and how they are managing these topics. But it doesn't really matter. All who sent their ballots shall be registered with same number, doesn't matter if it is 929ESC986 or the other mentioned one. So why believe this nonsense from the cowboy ? Wasn't it already enough with the fairy tale that the share price of Mr. Cooper has to be above a certain threshold for a certain time ? And what happened ?? Did distributions follow ?? And again .. Why does M.Willingham still has to work ? Is it really necessary when he would expect to get his distributions SOON ?? I'm sure we also have some bank clerks here or user who have studied banking and finance. What do they think about the cowboy's theories ? Shall we ask DTC(C), if the cowboy's theories with different escrow numbers are true ? Then we know it for sure who is right and who is wrong. Again: Why not asking an expert ? For this it would be really simple to disprove the cowboy's argumentation. "Just sayin'"