Unfortunately the details were disclosed and were posted before by me where.
The sale were for assets of Value and those assets with decreasing and remaining value are itemized in the Sec Filings. The terms are found on the USPTO trademark website in the transfer of the “marks” to Telogis.
The largest shareholder approved the sale.
Why would a private company purchase 29 billion shares of worthless stock in 2010 when they choose to purchase the remaining assets with depreciating value?