The fact is that he is compensated in some form for his shares so he's not holding his shares through a 1:1000 RS.
Why do you think he is doing that?
If his "goal" for the RS was to get the share price high, then why issue yourself a note for your shares? He is benefiting somehow.
It's a no brainer. And the SEC I'm sure will be glad to look into it.
Disclaimer: My posts are of my own opinion based on fundamentals and/or technicals on the chart. They should be considered for informational purposes only.