Obviously I'm out of my realm but you may have helped me connect the dots. Let's see. Forgive me if I'm saying pretty much the same thing you just posted (btw, I hadn't seen it expressed this way before now).
If, at the point in time that the results were measured: 1. The viral load in the untreated culture was X + Y. 2. Then the viral load in the treated culture was .03(X + Y).
Is that it? I think that equation mathematically says that Brilacidin reduced the viral load in the samples 97% more than nothing at all did. And that's finally starting to sound more meaningful to me.