1. He has "more" than required to acquire this previously worthless shell.
Please explain. He has less than a majority of the shares despite claims to have been buying more, I thought. If you are referring to how much money he has, I don't think any of us really know that answer to that question.
2. He is under the assumption and has possible knowledge of preferreds being off the table.
3. He is young enough to risk his reputation and has the rest of his life to build upon it. Profit for him is not part of the equation. Money is not the issue, its principles...taking a P-stock from trips to $'s and doing something with a sense of pride might just be his true motivation. Not flip'n a penny
These are possible but IMO don't line up very well with how this has progressed.
Why the initial 45% and not a majority at that time, while making it sound like he is almost buying up a majority (ie using a old OS from 2016)? Why 'tease' everyone instead of just buying up another 5%?
Why only buy more after the stock starts to slide, announcing it, and when it was then clear that to get a majority he would have to buy far far more? The effect was a rise in price, but for what real purpose?
Add to that the VNUE flipping, and I don't see this ending well.
Hopefully I am wrong and you are right. Best of luck.
My philosophy is to just be honest and balanced, and let the market decide if it agrees or not.