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Saturday, May 11, 2019 9:52:18 AM
Yanks
While I am not aware of the numbers I agree with the below 99%
The GOV [paid $187.5 B in Treasury draws, initially, and more since with the DTA and buffer relief afforded the GSEs in Amendment 4.
Now Question
As the "negative" at F and F (to the extent it existed) was all a paper loss due to write down of bond holdings --- where did this 187.5B go ?
As I understand it from reading here there and everywhere - F and F were never cash poor - so this investment cash of 187B is 'extra' money that must have stayed inside F and F
Where is it and why is it not available as some sort of reserve on the balance sheet to be paid to Treasury to call the paper associated?
Summary
F and F never needed cash - operations paid for it
F and F receive a ton of Treasury cash (or IOU on the books)
Such cash or IOU would not have been used
Such cash or IOU is there at F and F
Why then is it any problem for F and F to use this money to call in the paper when so allowed?
(the only answer I can come up with - and that is as a NON accountant - is that somehow this investment in to F and F by Treasury went out as cash dividends to Treasury due to the NWS > 10% ---- (but as its an investment and not income earned my accounting does not understand it)
While I am not aware of the numbers I agree with the below 99%
The GOV [paid $187.5 B in Treasury draws, initially, and more since with the DTA and buffer relief afforded the GSEs in Amendment 4.
Now Question
As the "negative" at F and F (to the extent it existed) was all a paper loss due to write down of bond holdings --- where did this 187.5B go ?
As I understand it from reading here there and everywhere - F and F were never cash poor - so this investment cash of 187B is 'extra' money that must have stayed inside F and F
Where is it and why is it not available as some sort of reserve on the balance sheet to be paid to Treasury to call the paper associated?
Summary
F and F never needed cash - operations paid for it
F and F receive a ton of Treasury cash (or IOU on the books)
Such cash or IOU would not have been used
Such cash or IOU is there at F and F
Why then is it any problem for F and F to use this money to call in the paper when so allowed?
(the only answer I can come up with - and that is as a NON accountant - is that somehow this investment in to F and F by Treasury went out as cash dividends to Treasury due to the NWS > 10% ---- (but as its an investment and not income earned my accounting does not understand it)
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