Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[Donotunderstand]

Do a 1:50 reverse split, then issue shares at $50. Both problems solved.


How does that dilute the 19.9% -- I must be thick

More shares at higher price is same % for the current aggregated owners?

And at $50 they do not need to issue a large number of shares?

(I thought the threat was tens of billions at a buck when we are at 2 bucks - if the IPO/SPO is at 50 and we are at 50 and its for 2B shares?

did the math dilute us?

I keep thinking 19.9% is still 19.9% and have not gone to the share level