"- FDIC simply said that it took a 299B bank into receivership which is true - FDIC does not say clearly what it did after that, but we already know that it sold a good chunk to JPM for merely 1.9B." Question: So, if one actually believes that 'most' of 299B was sold for a mere 1.8B, as you suggest, WHY was it EXCLUDED from the FDIC Report??? What facts are they (FDIC) reluctant to report?