Mr Cooper Group Inc fka COOP

[clawmann]

LG: The only issue I have with your post is this sentence:

"Now, when WMILT is advised they are owners of actual assets, both beneficial assets and cash, then they will approach WMIH and make a deal for the beneficial assets."

Why would the LT do a deal only with WMIH for any beneficial (non-cash) assets? Seems to me they are obligated to maximize the price they get by putting such non-cash assets up for bid (btw, I don't think there will be any non-cash assets). If they don't do that, how could they maintain that they have maximized the value of those assets? How could they ever justify doing a deal exclusively with WMIH? Especially if WMIH is not giving cash, but shares?