As CBA09 stated, the issuing SPE (WMAAC, WMMSC etc) would have held the certificate for any Retained Interests, not WMB.
How would the FDIC have been able to sell those "interests" to JPM when the assets of WAMU's Subsidiaries were NOT subject to the P&AA? (ie Assets, not assets)
Also, wouldn't any cash generated by those Retained Interests have been pledged, All or in Part, to WMI as the parent company?
FACTS...NOT EMPTY RHETORIC!!!