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Thursday, June 08, 2006 4:30:20 PM
north40000 - question - I know that patent law is unique but why would not a legal presumption be a factor in this litigation. [For the layman here - a legal presumption is a truth that the law assumes ex. "a properly posted letter reached its intended destination" Legal presumtions works to shift the burden of proof to the person who did not receive the letter to offer evidence that the letter did not reach its destination] Now in this case the US Patent Office issued the LATER patents upon which Iplex could be developed and produced. Isn't there a presumption that the US Patent Office WOULD NOT
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