The reverse split in discussion was a requirement of the noteholders. The noteholders made an investment but only under certain required obligations. There was never an 8k/a because there was never an 8k filed for the reverse split in the first place because there was never an RS. Why? Because of this statement from the 10q.......
All of the noteholders have waived the Company’s obligations to file a registration statement by January 17, 2015 and to effect a reverse split of its common stock by February 17, 2015.
This statement waived these obligations the noteholders required with their investment. Why? IMO because the noteholders don't see it necessary at this time.
What I post is IMO which was formed from reading the filings critically. So, in a way you were partially correct just jumping to conclusions it seems. Does this clear things up at all? Please let me know what you or anyone thinks.
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