joe,
<<I don't even now why it is even mentioned here.>>
IMO, 2 reasons in particular:
1. The LBI Broker Dealer goes to the successor who is Barclays so Barclays assumes the CTs.
2. The Barclays Purchase Agreement identifies $2.5B in investments assumed for retirement purposes but relating to the number of employees from Lehman working for Barclays. Many feel these include the CTs implicitly.
There are other reasons as well.
Just my thoughts.
mojo
“The ideas of debtor and creditor as to what constitutes a good time never coincide," P.G. Wodehouse, Love Among the Chickens