a question. We know the market of the elderly going into reverse mortgages to finance their retirement has been escalating, the question is, when an owner signs a contract of a reverse mortgage is this counted as the sale of an existing home??
I ask, because reverse mortgages are actually contracts of sale---the payee of the reverse mortgage is buying the property they have transacted with.
He played his video game night and day.
The MAZE of Death.
But that is the game we all are in, the trick, don't believe it.Get above it all and imagine nothing is what it seems.Kill the machine.otraque