InvestorsHub Logo

Jar

02/21/03 12:36 PM

#6424 RE: mtnlady #6422

>>2. The interpretation of the word "phusikos" (Strong's #5446) and "phusis" (Strong's #5449) which means "natural" found in Romans 1:21-31. You probably interpret that word to mean what is "natural" for you (I presume you are heterosexual) is what is "natural" for everyone. While I interpret the word to mean 'that what is natural for each individual'. i.e. For a homosexual being with another partner of the same sex is what is "natural" for them while for a heterosexual being with a partner of the opposite sex is what is "natural" for them.
<<

This is not the sense of "natural" Paul is using. It is "natural" for me to steal, lie, and be fearful. But I hardly think this is God's will for me. Paul is saying it is obvious that sex and marriage between a man and a woman are God's plan. Creation itself declares this. The entire Old Testament and New Testament declare it. Homosexuality is completely foreign to God's will. To engage in it is gross depravity.

You are completely wrong to say this issue is treated in 2 words and a single story. It is "unthinkable" that this would be God's intention so it is not necessary that God deal with it explicitly in very many places. You know this is true. Please stop twisting God's word.

mlsoft

02/21/03 4:25 PM

#6444 RE: mtnlady #6422

mtnlady...

You are doing contortions to avoid the plain teaching of the whole of the Bible. Homosexuality is a sin, an abomination before the Holy God.

mlsoft

deadbeat45

03/03/03 9:45 AM

#7890 RE: mtnlady #6422

mtnlady, I think that you are doing eisegesis (try to read one's views into the text) and not exegesis. I believe good biblical hermeneutics is what is needed to see the truth.

>>1. The interpretation of the word "arsenokoitais" found in 1 Cor 6:9-10 and again in 1 Timothy 1:9-10. You interpret that word to mean "homosexual" while I interpret that word to mean promiscuity.

2. The interpretation of the word "phusikos" (Strong's #5446) and "phusis" (Strong's #5449) which means "natural" found in Romans 1:21-31. You probably interpret that word to mean what is "natural" for you (I presume you are heterosexual) is what is "natural" for everyone. While I interpret the word to mean 'that what is natural for each individual'. i.e. For a homosexual being with another partner of the same sex is what is "natural" for them while for a heterosexual being with a partner of the opposite sex is what is "natural" for them.
<<


Here is something that I lifted from http://www.wels.net/sab/qa/behav-gay-03.html and links for your insight.

It is true that malakoi means soft or vulnerable and that koites means bed. But that is not all that they mean.

Malakos when used of clothes means soft clothing, but when it is used to refer to a man it means soft or effeminate. Then it also became the term in Greek for a catamite (i.e. the passive male partner in homosexual intercourse). Both of the standard Greek NT dictionaries, Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker and Louw-Nida, indicate that this is not only the meaning in 1 Co 6:9, but also in many other places in Greek literature. The Bauer lexicon gives specific citations of its use with this meaning in numerous other places in Greek literature.

The word koitos does mean bed, but it also came to mean intercourse. So the combination of arsen (male) and koitos (intercourse) came to be the word that was used to refer to homosexual intercourse between males. The Louw-Nida lexicon states that the Greek language had two distinct terms for the passive male partner and the active male partner in male homosexual intercourse.

Louw-Nida suggests, therefore, that the two terms used consecutively in 1 Co 6:9 (malakoi, arsenokoites) refer to the passive and active male partner in homosexual intercourse.

In The Contemporary Parallel New Testament which has eight NT Bible translations in parallel columns, six of the translations (NAS, NCV, CEV, NIV, NKJV, and NLT) translate both of these terms as referring to male homosexuals. The KJV
has "effeminate, abusers of themselves with mankind. The Message paraphrases "use and abuse sex."

Thus the NIV is in complete agreement with what the Greek dictionaries say these words mean when they refer to people, and the NIV is in agreement with many other translations that translate these words as referring to male homosexuality. It is only people who do not want to accept the fact that the Bible says homosexuality is a sin who try to say that the meaning of these words in 1 Co 6:9 is not


I would also like to note that God ....wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.1 Timothy 2:4(niv)

The Savior who invites sinners, "Come to me, you who are weary and burdened and I will give you rest" Matthew 11:28(niv). Jesus' words also apply to those who find themselves burdened with the sin and guilt of homosexual sins.


Not everything in Leviticus is Ceremonial Law. God's Moral Law is also there