gody...
I look forward to reading Sterling's post. They are thought provoking...
on this statement:
Let's just say, for simple math, that I sold 10 million shares while there was no "bid" and a "ask" of .0001 cent. Those shares will be reflected to appear as buys going through at .0001 cent. Why??? Because the MMs will now in-turn takes those shares and sell them to Urban from a coordinated deal at .00002 cent(s). What this does is allow for Urban to buy and retire 5 times the amount of the original amount initially reflected at the "ask" thus reflecting huge volume since .00002 x 5 = .0001 cent.
Sterling sells 10mil shares @ 0001 = $1,000
MM's sell those shares to Urban @ .00002 = $200
Question: why would the MM's take this loss? Or am I missing something here?
Thanks