The seller would need to agree with the offer for a deal. $8. ($3 billion) is at the low end of my estimated peak revenue. I doubt this price would be agreeable.
But the "seller" is the shareholders, is not the BOD.
$8 it was an e.g. my guess / valuation is $10-14.
My point is still that we can't make the assumption that the lack of an offer is because of a lack of interest.
"OK" ... What is the reason of the lack of an offer?
My point is still that we can't make the assumption that the lack of an offer is because of a lack of interest.
Hate to get philosophical but if that was true (lack of an offer because of a lack of interest), then this logic would apply to every single company that has not been acquired ... until they do get acquired.
If a company gets acquired on August 5, using that logic, does it mean that the acquirer didn't have any interest on August 4?
FYI - I am not disagreeing with you but pointing out a (philosophical) fallacy in the above quote.