So why do they put 14,400 in the prior CAD event & NO COVID NO Vascepaarm versus1600 in the prior CAD, NO COVID, and VASCEPA Rxarm
Normally we would randomize 1:1 not 10:1 but was the cost of Vascepa for the trial the limiting factor?
BUT here all the patients had a prior CAD event so it is definitely indicated per R-IT criteria to treat all with Vascepa. The main R-IT and R-IT REVASC analysis showed 25-30% reductions in first and subsequent revascularizations not to mention other CV events like MI Stroke, CV death etc.. Is it ethical to even have an arm that is:PRIOR CAD event (& NO COVID) NO Vascepa? Not in my book... HK