Isn't that carve out a "skinny label"? How can you prevent the generic from being sold for an off label use (R-IT)? I saw a generic vs. brand lawsuit over gabapentin yesterday where the generic lost over some off label issue, patents were still infringed. Makes zero sense (logically) that an identical drug used for multiple indications could have both brand and generic versions for different uses - of course the patient is going to be given the generic, as many states require it even if the generic doesn't have the label for the indication the drug is prescribed for.
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