So, if you owned 3m shares 6 months ago you would have owned 50% of the company. Now that same 3m shares controls roughly 1.5%.
So, how does a company justify doing this? All shareholders would be diluted equally, so the CEO's shares are now worth 3% of their value 6 months ago, too. Maybe the answer relates to a different class of stock (preferred)?
I'm strictly a speculator here. I have 750k shares at .0074, so if it goes to zero it's not the end of the world. I really feel for anyone that invested in this mess 6 months (2 months???) ago.
Best of luck. Some of this should be - and perhaps is - illegal.