Tuesday, July 24, 2012 1:48:03 PM
I don´t understand why some debt included in first classes of POR should be discharged with a 21% payment and the last classes would survive receiveing equities with a possible 100% FV.
When the POR was agreed, nobody knew about this new life with some assets and NOLs? Why these classes wouldn´t receive equities?
What assets weren´t included in POR?
Is there a chance that all debts included in POR will be discharged after a complete liquidation of assets and equities surving to keep the NOLs? I understand it`s necesary to keep 50% old/cold debt, but what if the cake is smaller and it includes only 20NOLs?
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