Mr Cooper Group Inc (COOP)

[umaw]

QUESTION, PLEASE?

Can somebody answer this senario? I am sure it's been covered somewhere before but thought I would post it again. Provided there is settlement done on the premise that there was, in fact, collusion and wrongdoing between all or most involved entities, wouldn't there have to be a payout to the preseizure shareholders, first, that even sold there shares because this would not have happened if it weren't for the criminal aspect of the case? I mean before any payout to post seizure shareholders in lieu of facing more litigation down the line from those who took a bath because of the criminal aspect of this case? I hope I am making myself clear here. My fear is that this may waterdown settlement to post shareholders.

Thanks in advance for thoughts and answers...