Warp, seems to me that if there is a 1:1 share swap, the shares will only go to shareholders of record, regardless of what the brokerages did with loaning out shares to shorts. The brokerage houses must make good the shares owned by a shareholder of record. If this is done, the FTD shorts will be left with worthless GTEM shares that they can't trade after the swap and symbol change. I don't see the complexity in this type of transaction, but I admit I am a novice in the trading world. What am I missing? TIA
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